(see this article)

  1. If Henry VII “knew” that Edward IV‘s sons were dead by the time of his accession, why did he take nineteen years to produce any “evidence”, particularly when two individuals appeared claiming to be one or both of those “Princes” in 1487 and 1491?
  2. If he “knew” that Edward IV hadn’t committed bigamy, why did he not “induce” Stillington to sign a confession, instead of imprisoning him and destroying the evidence he showed to convince the Three Estates?

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  1. What evidence is alleged to have been shown by Stillington; what source says that it was destroyed?

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    1. There was more than just his verbal testimony and a copy was sent overseas, to Calais or Burgundy, so it may emerge one day.

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